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Apr 5, 2013 at 2:42 vote accept MZWang
Apr 3, 2013 at 15:41 answer added Sándor Kovács timeline score: 3
Apr 3, 2013 at 15:21 comment added Will Sawin A wild guess is that for any ample line bundle $L$, there exists some $N$, such that for all $n\geq N$, $L^{\otimes n}$ is sufficiently ample. This "definition" only makes sense if the term is used in certain contexts like "If $L$ is sufficiently ample, then .." and not "If ..., then $L$ is sufficiently ample."
Apr 3, 2013 at 14:53 comment added Francesco Polizzi Maybe you should say where precisely in the book you found this concept...
Apr 3, 2013 at 14:49 history asked MZWang CC BY-SA 3.0