Timeline for Does $\partial\overline{\partial}f=0$ imply $f\equiv c$ for particular kind of $f$?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Mar 30, 2013 at 23:34 | vote | accept | Italo | ||
Mar 30, 2013 at 20:36 | history | edited | Robert Bryant | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added requested explanation
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Mar 30, 2013 at 17:35 | comment | added | Italo | @Robert: Thank you very much for the answer! I have a question, how can i prove that $f=h_{+}+\overline{h_{-}}$ with $h_{\pm}$ holomorphic if $\partial\overline{\partial}f=0$? Is it a well known fact that i don't know? If yes is there a reference? | |
Mar 30, 2013 at 13:54 | comment | added | Robert Bryant | @John: ...and Hartogs' theorem, too! | |
Mar 30, 2013 at 13:40 | comment | added | John Jiang | This is a nice problem to learn about Hartog's theorem! | |
Mar 30, 2013 at 13:39 | history | edited | Robert Bryant | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
fixed some typos, added a reference
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Mar 30, 2013 at 13:33 | history | answered | Robert Bryant | CC BY-SA 3.0 |