Timeline for Why is a proper, affine morphism finite?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 10, 2013 at 20:38 | vote | accept | nicolas | ||
| Mar 28, 2013 at 5:24 | answer | added | anon | timeline score: 15 | |
| Mar 27, 2013 at 19:13 | comment | added | Emerton | Dear nicolas, Do you understand intuitively why this should be true (or might be true)? If not, why not first consider the case when the base is a point; then you are asking why an affine variety that is proper is necessarily zero-dimensional. Hopefully you can prove this. The general problem for affine morphisms doesn't directly reduce to this particular case, but it should at least provide you with some intuition. Regards, | |
| Mar 27, 2013 at 17:43 | comment | added | Jason Starr | Is this one of your homework problems? | |
| Mar 27, 2013 at 17:41 | answer | added | user19475 | timeline score: 3 | |
| Mar 27, 2013 at 17:02 | comment | added | Matthieu Romagny | This is in EGA2, 6.7.1. | |
| Mar 27, 2013 at 17:00 | answer | added | ChrisLazda | timeline score: 14 | |
| Mar 27, 2013 at 16:42 | history | asked | nicolas | CC BY-SA 3.0 |