Timeline for Was the early calculus inconsistent?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
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| Apr 3, 2013 at 13:14 | comment | added | Mikhail Katz | @Lee Mosher: Every discerning student would ask such a question, and we generally have answers. But Leibniz arguably already had an answer to Berkeley's question. The answer is given by Leibniz's Transcendental Law of Homogeneity. This allows one to discard $dx$ without setting it equal to zero. What Hewitt, Los, and Robinson showed is that Leibniz can be formalized even without $\epsilon,\delta$. There is a debate going on about this but the math community can form its own opinion rather than relying on historians which often operate with outdated conceptual frameworks inadequate to the task. | |
| Mar 20, 2013 at 18:58 | comment | added | Yemon Choi | @Lee: if you get the Bishop in your office, see if Dr. Johnson is also free to join in the discussion... | |
| Mar 20, 2013 at 15:17 | comment | added | Andrej Bauer | See my answer for transcription of the argument into modern syntetic differential analysis. | |
| Mar 20, 2013 at 14:53 | history | edited | Lee Mosher | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Mar 20, 2013 at 14:45 | history | answered | Lee Mosher | CC BY-SA 3.0 |