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Mar 19, 2013 at 4:50 vote accept Marius Tarnauceanu
Mar 18, 2013 at 16:17 comment added Tom Goodwillie (when $k\ge 2$)
Mar 18, 2013 at 14:07 comment added Tom Goodwillie Yes. It's enough if $G^k$ has the property when $G$ is cyclic. $G^k$ always has the property if $G$ is abelian, because there exists an invertible $k\times k$ matrix $M$ over $\mathbb Z$ such that $1-M$ is invertible.
Mar 18, 2013 at 6:49 history edited Marius Tarnauceanu CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 18, 2013 at 6:39 history edited Marius Tarnauceanu CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 18, 2013 at 6:21 comment added Marius Tarnauceanu Thank you very much. This is the strong form of a problem from a mathematics contest. I think that Tom is right: in a finite abelian 2-group $G$ satisfying the above property each $\alpha_i$ occurs at least twice. My problem is whether the converse is true (i.e. if a finite abelian 2-group $G$ such that each $\alpha_i$ occurs at least twice satisfies this property).
Mar 16, 2013 at 15:44 comment added Tom Goodwillie It's not true. You need to strengthen $(\ast)$ to say that each positive integer that occurs as an $\alpha_j$ occurs at least twice.
Mar 16, 2013 at 13:58 comment added Amritanshu Prasad Curious why you need this.
Mar 16, 2013 at 13:40 comment added Jeremy Rickard I'm not clear about what you can't prove? Is it whether $(*)$ is a sufficient condition for abelian 2-groups? In any case, for finite abelian groups I think the question reduces easily to the Sylow $p$-subgroups.
Mar 16, 2013 at 11:20 answer added Amritanshu Prasad timeline score: 3
Mar 16, 2013 at 7:58 history asked Marius Tarnauceanu CC BY-SA 3.0