No. Take $\Omega = \mathbf{R}$, $$f(x) = \left\\{\begin{array}{cc} x^{-1/2} & |x| < 1\\\\ 0 & |x| \geq 1 \end{array}\right.$$$$ f(x) = \left\{\begin{array}{cc} x^{-1/2} & |x| < 1\\\\ 0 & |x| \geq 1 \end{array}\right. $$
$x_i = 3^i$, and $r_i = x_i/2$ $$\int_{B(x_i,2r_i)} |f| = \int_0^{1} x^{-1/2} dx = 2$$$$ \int_{B(x_i,2r_i)} |f| = \int_0^{1} x^{-1/2} dx = 2. $$
Assume there exists a $g$ in $L^1(\mathbf{R})$ $$\int_{\Omega} |g| \geq \sum_i \int_{B_i} |g| \geq C^{-1} \sum_i \int_{B(x_i,2r_i)} |f| \geq C^{-1} \sum_i 2 = \infty$$ which contradicts the hypothesis.