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Mar 14, 2013 at 22:05 comment added Hugh Medal Do you mean that the first one is a convex function in the vector x? If so, that would be great because I am trying to prove just that. Do you have any references or a proof?
Mar 14, 2013 at 17:02 comment added john mangual they are not equivalent. the second one converges to f, while the first one is a convex function related to f
Mar 14, 2013 at 16:16 comment added Hugh Medal I just added a reference to the first one
Mar 14, 2013 at 16:15 history edited Hugh Medal CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 14, 2013 at 15:29 comment added john mangual the first one might be wrong en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bernstein_polynomial
Mar 14, 2013 at 14:54 history edited Hugh Medal CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 14, 2013 at 14:49 history asked Hugh Medal CC BY-SA 3.0