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Timeline for Quotient of trivial bundles

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Nov 17, 2015 at 11:03 comment added Andrea Could you please clarify the relation between the quotient bundle and the homotopy class of the map $X\to S^{n-1}$ representing the subbundle?
Mar 19, 2013 at 3:12 vote accept kalafat
Mar 19, 2013 at 3:11 vote accept kalafat
Mar 19, 2013 at 3:12
Mar 15, 2013 at 4:06 comment added kalafat Orientability assumption makes it into $S^{n−1}$ rather than $P^{n−1}$ I guess.
Mar 13, 2013 at 22:28 comment added Tom Goodwillie I meant of course no cohomology in degrees $n-k$ or higher.
Mar 13, 2013 at 22:27 comment added Tom Goodwillie Yes. In fact, if $X$ has the homotopy type of a complex of dimension less than $n-k$, or if it has no cohomology in degrees less than that (even with twisted coefficients), that's enough.
Mar 13, 2013 at 21:42 comment added Ricardo Andrade A small comment since the question is about manifolds. When $X$ is a smooth manifold of dimension $d$ whose interior has no compact component, you can get away with only $d\leq n-k$. This follows from Tom's answer because $X$ is then homotopy equivalent to a CW-complex of dimension $d-1$: $X$ admits a handlebody decomposition with no handles of dimension $d$.
Mar 13, 2013 at 17:04 comment added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Ah, right! ${}{}$
Mar 13, 2013 at 16:27 comment added Tom Goodwillie No. We are given a trivial rank one subbundle.
Mar 13, 2013 at 15:49 comment added Mariano Suárez-Álvarez You want $P^{n-1}$, no?
Mar 13, 2013 at 15:48 history edited Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 3.0
added 39 characters in body
Mar 13, 2013 at 15:41 history answered Tom Goodwillie CC BY-SA 3.0