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S Dec 5, 2023 at 12:03 history suggested The Amplitwist CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Dec 5, 2023 at 12:03
Mar 7, 2013 at 19:02 vote accept Askoli
Mar 7, 2013 at 18:56 comment added Davide Giraudo We have for $p<0$ that $K^p\leqslant |B(1)|^p$ hence there are moments of order $p$ for $0-1<p<0$.
Mar 7, 2013 at 18:52 history edited Davide Giraudo CC BY-SA 3.0
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Mar 7, 2013 at 18:34 comment added Askoli Many thanks. Very nice answer. Before accepting, can we say something about the existence of moments for $p<0$ using the same argument?
Mar 7, 2013 at 18:31 history answered Davide Giraudo CC BY-SA 3.0