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Mar 18, 2013 at 14:48 history edited Arturo Magidin CC BY-SA 3.0
fix statement
Mar 18, 2013 at 12:54 history edited Joël CC BY-SA 3.0
added 11 characters in body
Mar 18, 2013 at 12:53 comment added Joël You're right, I correct.
Mar 18, 2013 at 7:49 comment added Lior Bary-Soroker Why $P_t$ is irreducible for all but finitely many $t$'s? It is not true, e.g., if $P=X^2$ and $P_t=X^2-t$. Hilbert irreducibility theorem ensures that the set of $t$'s for which irreducibility fails is small, but not necessarily cofinite. Do I miss something?
Mar 7, 2013 at 16:39 history answered Joël CC BY-SA 3.0