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Mar 9, 2013 at 2:03 comment added Brendan McKay Yikes, you beat me. ;)
Mar 9, 2013 at 2:02 history edited Brendan McKay CC BY-SA 3.0
proved
Mar 9, 2013 at 2:00 comment added Brendan McKay You are right, which prompted me to find the correct formula. Editing...
Mar 9, 2013 at 1:23 comment added Sungjin Kim It is $(-1)^{k+1}$ when $|I\cup J|=n$, and 0 otherwise.
Mar 8, 2013 at 21:43 comment added Sungjin Kim Your guess doesn't hold for $n=1$.
Mar 7, 2013 at 12:50 history answered Brendan McKay CC BY-SA 3.0