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Mar 7, 2013 at 21:24 vote accept Juan
Mar 7, 2013 at 10:28 vote accept Juan
Mar 7, 2013 at 10:28
Mar 7, 2013 at 9:02 answer added Oscar Randal-Williams timeline score: 3
Mar 7, 2013 at 8:53 comment added Juan @ Chris Sorry for my typo but I meant $\pi_!$, not $\pi_*$. Isn't it the transfer map? You are right; the example below is not a counter-eample.
Mar 7, 2013 at 8:46 comment added Chris Gerig Neither $\pi_*$ nor $\pi^*$ is the transfer (which goes in the opposite direction). And you shouldn't accept Russell's answer yet because it isn't correct -- his 1st attempted counter-example with n even doesn't satisfy your hypotheses, and his 2nd counter-example with n odd vacuously satisfies your conclusion (i.e. is not a counter-example).
Mar 7, 2013 at 8:33 vote accept Juan
Mar 7, 2013 at 8:48
Mar 7, 2013 at 8:29 comment added Juan @Chris π∗ should be the transfer map. If my memory serves, one of the equalities in the last line holds. It seems that Russel's example below shows us the latter does not hold in general...
Mar 7, 2013 at 7:53 comment added Chris Gerig Have you tried just checking definitions at the chain-level?. One thing to quickly note is that we already have transfer maps that satisfy your conclusion. I'm not sure your construction produces the transfer, and so I wouldn't immediately expect your conclusion to hold. (sorry I'm being lazy right now)
Mar 7, 2013 at 7:45 history edited Juan CC BY-SA 3.0
added "orientable"
Mar 7, 2013 at 7:44 comment added Juan Yes, PD stands for the Poincare duality map.
Mar 7, 2013 at 7:32 answer added Russell timeline score: 0
Mar 7, 2013 at 6:16 history edited Chris Gerig CC BY-SA 3.0
added 126 characters in body; added 7 characters in body
Mar 7, 2013 at 5:09 comment added Sándor Kovács I would guess $PD$ stands for Poincaré duality
Mar 7, 2013 at 5:05 comment added Spice the Bird Could you say what $PD_X,PD_Y$ are?
Mar 7, 2013 at 4:18 history asked Juan CC BY-SA 3.0