Skip to main content
7 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Mar 4, 2013 at 20:41 comment added Atsushi Kanazawa I see. The argument works only for $\mathbb{P}^1$. Thanks.
Mar 4, 2013 at 18:51 comment added Tom Graber If you have a map from P^1, to the product, then you have one to each factor separately. If one of those maps is constant, then you just deform the map by moving the point. If both maps are nonconstant, then you get a copy of $P^1 \times P^1$ in the product, where your curve lives, and so it deforms inside that surface.
Mar 4, 2013 at 18:18 comment added Atsushi Kanazawa Hi Tom. How do you see the assertion for rational curves? Thanks.
Mar 4, 2013 at 17:03 comment added Tom Graber This would be true if you were asking about rational curves.
Mar 4, 2013 at 11:26 history edited Francesco Polizzi
edited tags
Mar 4, 2013 at 11:05 answer added Francesco Polizzi timeline score: 12
Mar 4, 2013 at 10:22 history asked Thom CC BY-SA 3.0