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S Sep 3, 2016 at 2:13 history suggested Bruno Le Floch CC BY-SA 3.0
LaTeX typo
Sep 3, 2016 at 1:35 review Suggested edits
S Sep 3, 2016 at 2:13
Mar 13, 2013 at 12:30 comment added user1504 @JeffHarvey All true. I've only sketched out the basic idea above. The OP didn't write enough for me to bother with more than that.
Mar 13, 2013 at 1:03 comment added Jeff Harvey In many cases no invariant measure exists. There are anomalies. The passage from finite dimensional integrals to path integrals is more subtle than you indicate here.
Feb 26, 2013 at 19:57 history edited user1504 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Feb 26, 2013 at 19:51 history answered user1504 CC BY-SA 3.0