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May 22 at 14:56 history protected CommunityBot
Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 history edited CommunityBot
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Jul 2, 2014 at 16:26 vote accept Asaf Karagila
Jul 2, 2014 at 11:17 answer added Ioanna timeline score: 33
May 8, 2014 at 20:23 comment added Asaf Karagila @Yair: I'm not quite clear on your idea there. Maybe you can explain it tomorrow?
May 8, 2014 at 19:49 comment added Yair Hayut Maybe we can say something like this: take a model of $\neg AC$ in which $\forall A,\,|A|+|A|=|A|$. Now if you have in addition for every infinite set $A$ a set $B$ with $A\leq 2^B$ and $2^{A} = 2^{2^B}$ (sort of very weak $GCH$) then it would follow that $A^A = 2^A$ for every $A$: it is true for $X = P(B)$, since $|X \times X| = 2^{|B| + |B|} = 2^{|B|} = |X|$, and for $A\leq X$ with $|2^A| = |2^X|$, $2^X \cong 2^A \leq A^A \leq X^X \cong 2^X$.
Dec 26, 2013 at 13:02 comment added Asaf Karagila @Yair: That's an equivalent question to the second one I ask here.
Dec 26, 2013 at 7:31 comment added Yair Hayut Does it known whether $\forall A\,2^{A\times A} = 2^A$ implies $AC$?
Feb 26, 2013 at 6:09 comment added Asaf Karagila Does anyone have an idea why this was downvoted?
Feb 25, 2013 at 23:58 history edited Asaf Karagila CC BY-SA 3.0
added 174 characters in body
Feb 25, 2013 at 0:47 comment added JRN @Daniel Spector, also when $A=0$ (as some people define $0^0=1$). :)
Feb 25, 2013 at 0:37 comment added Asaf Karagila Thanks Andres, I didn't notice that typo (I can't type the accent on my keyboard, but that's another story!)
Feb 25, 2013 at 0:36 history edited Asaf Karagila CC BY-SA 3.0
Typo!
Feb 24, 2013 at 23:42 comment added Andrés E. Caicedo (Sierpiński.)${}$
Feb 24, 2013 at 21:19 comment added Asaf Karagila I wasn't sure whether or not the additional question makes it eligible for [reference-request].
Feb 24, 2013 at 21:18 history edited Asaf Karagila CC BY-SA 3.0
added 299 characters in body
Feb 24, 2013 at 9:54 comment added Adam Epstein Which for some reason is excluded from the initial statement :)
Feb 24, 2013 at 9:10 comment added Daniel Spector Because of the question "When does $A^A=2^A$ without the axiom of choice?", I could't help but comment - when A=2...
Feb 24, 2013 at 6:30 comment added Asaf Karagila Eric, yes. That would be the first immediate consequence.
Feb 24, 2013 at 6:21 comment added Eric Wofsey Given that $A\times A=A$ for all $A$ is equivalent to AC, you could also ask whether the same is true of $A^A=2^A$.
Feb 24, 2013 at 5:43 history asked Asaf Karagila CC BY-SA 3.0