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Timeline for Why are abelian groups amenable?

Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5

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Jan 19, 2010 at 4:02 history edited Tom Church CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jan 19, 2010 at 0:35 history edited Tom Church CC BY-SA 2.5
expanded on how to prove without equivalences
Jan 18, 2010 at 22:08 comment added Tom Leinster Tom, I like the idea of doing any f.g. abelian group instantly, with a single Folner sequence. But I'm unclear as to whether you're saying that needs the classification theorem (CT). I assumed "ball of radius r" referred to choosing a generating set then taking the usual length-of-word norm; and that strategy doesn't seem to depend on the CT. But then, if I understand correctly, you said that you preferred your original approach because it avoided the CT.
Jan 18, 2010 at 20:43 comment added Yemon Choi Well, for what it's worth, Tom, I think you put very clearly what I was only groping towards mentioning: your three step argument is in fact what I had at the back of my mind when I write my own sleep-deprived answer. So +1, if only as a gesture :)
Jan 18, 2010 at 19:46 comment added Qiaochu Yuan It looks like your step 3 is the analogue of Tom's step 5; is it proven in the same way?
Jan 18, 2010 at 19:45 history edited Tom Church CC BY-SA 2.5
deleted 25 characters in body
Jan 18, 2010 at 19:36 history answered Tom Church CC BY-SA 2.5