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Jan 18, 2010 at 20:24 comment added Bjorn Poonen Yes, I was just trying to answer the question as stated, but you are right: it does work for any finite set of integers (or even real numbers) as coefficients, and with any scheme for rounding real numbers to integers within O(1). Allowing real numbers as coefficients allows one to treat the Fibonacci case literally as a special case.
Jan 18, 2010 at 15:48 vote accept aorq
Jan 18, 2010 at 15:06 comment added t3suji Nice argument. It seems to show that the appearance of the particular set of coefficients {+1,-1} is arbitrary; wouldn't it be more natural to state it for any finite set of coefficients?
Jan 18, 2010 at 8:15 history edited Bjorn Poonen CC BY-SA 2.5
Minor clarifications in proof of Lemma 2: subsums of powers of b are to be taken with the same signs as the t_i
Jan 18, 2010 at 8:08 history answered Bjorn Poonen CC BY-SA 2.5