Timeline for Representing numbers in a non-integer base with few (but possibly negative) nonzero digits
Current License: CC BY-SA 2.5
5 events
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Jan 18, 2010 at 20:24 | comment | added | Bjorn Poonen | Yes, I was just trying to answer the question as stated, but you are right: it does work for any finite set of integers (or even real numbers) as coefficients, and with any scheme for rounding real numbers to integers within O(1). Allowing real numbers as coefficients allows one to treat the Fibonacci case literally as a special case. | |
Jan 18, 2010 at 15:48 | vote | accept | aorq | ||
Jan 18, 2010 at 15:06 | comment | added | t3suji | Nice argument. It seems to show that the appearance of the particular set of coefficients {+1,-1} is arbitrary; wouldn't it be more natural to state it for any finite set of coefficients? | |
Jan 18, 2010 at 8:15 | history | edited | Bjorn Poonen | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
Minor clarifications in proof of Lemma 2: subsums of powers of b are to be taken with the same signs as the t_i
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Jan 18, 2010 at 8:08 | history | answered | Bjorn Poonen | CC BY-SA 2.5 |