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Mar 3, 2013 at 17:48 vote accept Andriy Regeta
Feb 14, 2013 at 16:57 comment added Misha Andriy: Google "fiber product", then Marc's answer will make sense.
Feb 14, 2013 at 16:18 comment added Andriy Regeta Sorry, what I wrote here is a stupid remark, I think, I got an answer!
Feb 14, 2013 at 13:28 comment added Andriy Regeta Now I convinced myself that I can forget about $C$, so I have just a free product of two groups (in fact, those groups are algebraic). But if representations of $G$ are just pairs of representations of $A$ and $B$, then representations of $Γ$ (in the answer below given by @HW) are just pairs of representations of $F_1$ and $F_2$ which seems to be impossible to me (following from the answer of @HW). How should one understand $Rep(A) \times_{Rep(C)} Rep(B)$ ?
Feb 13, 2013 at 22:26 comment added Amin Your question is a bit unclear to me. As said by Marc Hoyois, the representations (finite or not) of the amalgamated product are just pairs of representations of A and B that coincide when restricted to C, by the very universal property of the amalgamated product. What else did you want ?
Feb 13, 2013 at 20:57 comment added Alain Valette To paraphrase Mark: If you are interested in infinite dimensional representations, then there is no connection either: view the free group $\mathbb{F}_2$ as the free product of two copies of $\mathbb{Z}$. A unitary representation of $\mathbb{F}_2$ is a pair of unitaries on a Hilbert space, and that's about all you can say, while a unitary representation of $\mathbb{Z}$ is completely described by the spectral theorem (basically, it corresponds to a positive measure on the circle).
Feb 13, 2013 at 17:52 comment added Misha @Marc: Maybe you should post your comment as an answer. This formula holds even if we think of $Rep$ as a scheme-theoretic functor (when the target is an algebraic group).
Feb 13, 2013 at 17:11 comment added Andriy Regeta @Marc Hoyois, thanks! I am just on the way to understand your answer.
Feb 13, 2013 at 16:16 comment added Marc Hoyois $Rep(G)$ is still formally related to $Rep(A)$, $Rep(B)$, and $Rep(C)$ even in the finite-dimensional case. In fact, we have $Rep(G)=Rep(A)\times_{Rep(C)}Rep(B)$ because a representation is just a functor out of $G$ and amalgamated product is the categorical pushout.
Feb 13, 2013 at 13:55 history edited HJRW CC BY-SA 3.0
Added gr.group-theory tag
Feb 13, 2013 at 13:44 answer added HJRW timeline score: 6
Feb 13, 2013 at 13:26 comment added Andriy Regeta I see, Thanks! I am interested in general about not only finite-dimensional representations, but such information is, of course, very interesting! (and probably, it holds then also in infinite dimensional case).
Feb 13, 2013 at 12:59 comment added user6976 If you are interested in finite dimensional representations, then there is no connection because the amalgamated product may have no non-trivial faithful finite dimensional representations while $A$ and $B$ have faithful finite dimensional representations.
Feb 13, 2013 at 12:43 history asked Andriy Regeta CC BY-SA 3.0