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Nov 24, 2020 at 12:34 comment added Ori Gurel-Gurevich @MarkM.Wilde, You apply the inequality to the RV Y=X/E(X) and take expectation. This is basically equivalent to the inequality you wrote.
Nov 22, 2020 at 4:14 comment added Mark M. Wilde I can see how it follows from $\sqrt{x} \geq \sqrt{a} +\frac{x-a}{2\sqrt{a}} - \frac{(x-a)^2}{2a^{3/2}}$, which Mathematica tells me is true for all $x \geq 0$ and $a>0$. I suppose there is some simple translation from the inequality you wrote to this more general one? If you consider this too simple or obvious, please don't bother...
Nov 22, 2020 at 3:49 comment added Mark M. Wilde I don't see how the general inequality $\sqrt{E(X)}\bigg(1-\frac{Var(X)}{2 E(X)^2}\bigg) \le E(\sqrt{X})$ for an arbitrary non-negative RV $X$ follows from $1 + \frac{x-1}{2} - \frac{(x-1)^2}{2} \le \sqrt{x} $. Could you please clarify this point? Is it obvious?
Sep 8, 2013 at 0:46 comment added Ori Gurel-Gurevich Sure. Expanding and multiplying by 2 we get that the inequality is equivalent to $3x-x^2 \le 2 \sqrt{x}$. Writing $a=\sqrt{x}$ and dividing we get $3a -a^3 \le 2$ which is true for any $a\ge 0$.
Sep 6, 2013 at 21:00 comment added Mohammad Alaggan Can someone help be notice why $1 + \frac{x-1}{2} - \frac{(x-1)^2}{2} \le \sqrt{x} $?
Feb 11, 2013 at 19:08 vote accept Matilde Martins Santos
Feb 10, 2013 at 21:05 history answered Ori Gurel-Gurevich CC BY-SA 3.0