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Feb 11, 2013 at 17:50 vote accept Georg S.
Feb 11, 2013 at 8:52 answer added Qing Liu timeline score: 6
Feb 9, 2013 at 21:14 answer added Will Sawin timeline score: 2
Feb 9, 2013 at 18:17 comment added Martin Brandenburg $\mathrm{Spec}(R_f)$ is the complement of $V(f)$ (for $f \in R$), but $\mathrm{Spec}(R_P)$ is not the complement of $V(P)$ (for $P \in \mathrm{Spec}(R)$).
Feb 9, 2013 at 14:41 answer added Karl Schwede timeline score: 2
Feb 9, 2013 at 14:39 answer added Martin Brandenburg timeline score: 3
Feb 9, 2013 at 13:14 comment added Fred Rohrer @Georg: You are of course right, since spectra are not necessarily totally ordered by inclusion.
Feb 9, 2013 at 13:13 comment added Georg S. Well, V(P) contains all $Q \supset P$, so its complement is the set of all $Q \not\supset P$. But $Spec(R_P)$ consists of all $Q$ with $Q \cap (R \setminus P) = \emptyset$, so $Q \subset P$. This is not the complement of $V(P)$. Am I wrong? This would be great. :-)
Feb 9, 2013 at 13:12 answer added Fred Rohrer timeline score: 4
Feb 9, 2013 at 13:08 comment added Joe Silverman Isn't Spec$(R_P)$ (considered as a subset of Spec$(R)$) the complement of $V(P)$? That would make it open. (This question seems a bit elementary for MO.)
Feb 9, 2013 at 12:54 history asked Georg S. CC BY-SA 3.0