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May 9, 2023 at 17:12 history edited José Hdz. Stgo. CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 12, 2013 at 6:57 comment added KConrad The connection of this with CRT is that the following two conditions on a polynomial $f(x)$ with integral coefficients are equivalent: (i) there isn't a prime $p$ such that every $f(a)$ is divisible by $p$, and (ii) there isn't a finite set of primes $p_1,\dots, p_k$ such that every $f(a)$ is divisible by some $p_i$ (allowed to vary with $a$). Likewise, we have the equivalence of (i) there isn't a prime $p$ such that every $f(a)$ is divisible by $p^2$, and (ii) there isn't a finite set of primes $p_1,\dots, p_k$ such that every $f(a)$ is divisible by some $p_i^2$ (allowed to vary with $a$).
Dec 12, 2013 at 6:51 comment added KConrad would be simpler than infinitude of prime values, but both conjectures are still open in general. Though Granville did prove the conjecture about infinitude of squarefree values under the $ABC$ conjecture, while nobody has derived Bunyakowsky's conjecture from the $ABC$ conjecture or other conjectures not obviously related to Bunyakowsky's conjecture.
Dec 12, 2013 at 6:49 comment added KConrad I rewrote my second entry. What I think I may have had in mind when I initially wrote it is the following. Let $f(x)$ be irreducible with integral coefficients. Bunyakowsky conjectured that if there is no prime $p$ dividing $f(a)$ for all $a$ in $\mathbf Z$ then $f(a)$ is prime infinitely often (allow negative primes). This is unsolved if $\deg f > 1$. It is also conjectured that if there is no prime $p$ such that $p^2|f(a)$ for every integer $a$ then $f(a)$ is squarefree infinitely often, and this is wide open if $\deg f > 3$. You'd think proving infinitude of squarefree values [contd.]
Dec 12, 2013 at 6:42 history edited KConrad CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 12, 2013 at 3:49 comment added KConrad @AntonKlyachko: Ой, конечно я ошибся. Спасибо. Мне нужно пересмотреть то, что я имел в виду...
Dec 11, 2013 at 17:03 comment added Anton Klyachko Excuse me, KConrad (and @Zack), I do not understand the problem about squares. Suppose that we have integers $a$ and $b$ such that $f(a)\ne0$ modulo $p^2$ and $f(b)\ne0$ modulo $q^2$, then CRT provides us with an integer $c$ equal to $a$ modulo $p^2$ and equal to $b$ modulo $q^2$. Thus, $f(c)=f(a)\ne0$ modulo $p^2$ and $f(c)=f(b)\ne0$ modulo $q^2$, which is a contradiction. Or I miss something?
Jul 12, 2012 at 2:51 comment added KConrad @Zack: Thanks for pointing that out. I fixed the statement of 2. And as far as I know the question on squares is still unproved.
Jul 12, 2012 at 2:50 history edited KConrad CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 12, 2012 at 1:36 comment added Zack Wolske Since this is a few years old, do you know if the question on squares is still open?
Jul 12, 2012 at 1:35 comment added Zack Wolske The statement starting at "That is," in 2. is not what you meant to write, based on what you say in the first sentence. It says "If $6$ divides $f(a)$ for all $a$, then either $2$ divides every $f(a)$, or $3$ divides every $f(a)$", which is certainly true and does not use CRT. I think that's why Idoneal was suggesting that it was a modified version of congruence. You could instead say "That is, if $f(a) \equiv 0, 2, 3$, or $4 \mod{6}$ for each $a$, then either..."
Jul 30, 2010 at 0:11 history edited Gerry Myerson CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jan 17, 2010 at 6:17 comment added KConrad Huh? The notation looks correct to me. It's the congruence notation from modular arithmetic. To say a number is 0 mod m means it is a multiple of m, and that's the situation I'm describing in 2. In what way does the usage look nonstandard? (I said at the start that a runs over integers, and that remains true anywhere later on as well.)
Jan 17, 2010 at 5:49 comment added Idoneal I think you are using the symbol $\equiv$ in a nonstandard way in 2 above.
Jan 16, 2010 at 19:35 history answered KConrad CC BY-SA 2.5