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Apr 28, 2018 at 18:01 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 25, 2013 at 1:58 comment added Mozibur Ullah and your additional comment is useful too.
Jan 25, 2013 at 1:54 comment added Mozibur Ullah great, going by Lees answer I see that my question wasn't quite right. But I am interested in how I phrased it. Do you think it can actually hold locally? I've accepted Lees answer as it only seems fair since I picked up the question from his book. But your answer is equally worthwhile. It doesn't seem quite correct that one should choose.
Jan 24, 2013 at 23:18 comment added Pietro Majer More generally: for smooth maps $h:U\to X$ and $f:X\to Y$, if $fh$ is smoothly final, then $f$ is smoothly final.
Jan 24, 2013 at 22:38 history answered Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0