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Jan 7, 2014 at 19:56 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0
Reorganized everything
Jan 29, 2013 at 0:13 comment added Martin Brandenburg Alternatively: Finitely generated submodules of $K$ are torsionfree, hence flat, and therefore the property symtrivial descends.
Jan 27, 2013 at 19:55 comment added Will Sawin yes, because every pair of elements is contained in a symtrivial submodule, that being the fractional ideal generated by those two elements, which is a line bundle, hence symtrivial.
Jan 27, 2013 at 19:09 comment added tj_ @Will: Is each submodule of $K$ symtrivial ?
Jan 26, 2013 at 10:31 vote accept Martin Brandenburg
Jan 26, 2013 at 0:55 comment added Will Sawin (5) Because then $p^{n-1}M/p^nM= p^{n-1}(R/p^kR)=0$. (Q2) Because for each prime $p$, either $F$ is $p$-divisble or $T$ has no $p$-torsion
Jan 25, 2013 at 23:41 comment added Martin Brandenburg (5) Yes, but how can we exclude $R/p^k R \cong M/p^n M$ for $k<n$? (Q2) Why is there some $y$ such that $ny \equiv x$ mod $T$? This is only clear when $M/T = K$.
Jan 25, 2013 at 21:23 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 25, 2013 at 19:17 comment added Will Sawin The kernel is a submodule of $R/p^nR$, which is a quotient of a local ring of a Dedekind domain, hence a DVR, so all ideals are powers of the maximal ideal, $p$.
Jan 25, 2013 at 14:44 comment added Martin Brandenburg Thanks a lot for the new version, it is very clear. I still have some problems with (5). I see that $R/p^n R \to M/p^n M$ is surjective, but why is it injective?
Jan 25, 2013 at 14:43 history edited Martin Brandenburg CC BY-SA 3.0
minor typos, and completed the proof of (4)
Jan 25, 2013 at 3:16 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 25, 2013 at 0:42 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 25, 2013 at 0:24 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 23, 2013 at 22:52 history edited Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 23, 2013 at 22:39 history answered Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0