Skip to main content
7 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Jan 22, 2013 at 6:26 vote accept anon
Jan 21, 2013 at 16:55 answer added Angelo timeline score: 8
Jan 21, 2013 at 14:08 answer added Jason Starr timeline score: 5
Jan 21, 2013 at 13:51 comment added anon I think the automorphism functor is representable by a finite type group scheme since $K_X$ is ample (look at the action on sections of $K_X^n$). Also, $\mathrm{Aut}(X)$ is always represented by a locally finitely presented group scheme for $X$ projective (look inside the Hilbert scheme of $X \times X$), so "reducedness" makes sense. However, I don't want to worry about these issues too much here, so I'm happy to take reducedness to mean that $H^0(X,T_X) = 0$.
Jan 21, 2013 at 12:38 comment added YCor What does "reduced" mean (for the automorphism group)? Is it always a group scheme in a natural way (in which case I understand what "reduced" means)?
Jan 21, 2013 at 11:38 history asked anon CC BY-SA 3.0