Skip to main content
6 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jan 20, 2013 at 8:38 answer added Daniel Spector timeline score: 5
Jan 18, 2013 at 17:47 comment added Daniel Spector If you are talking about $U = (0,1)$, $m=1$, and $\alpha=1$ then the answer is yes, as well as more generally (I believe) if $|\alpha|=1$. Consider the following - as you suggest, in general $||f^\prime||_{L^p} \leq ||f||_{W^{1,p}}$, but if you consider a sequence $f_n$ such that $||f_n^\prime||_{L^p}=1$ and $f_n \to 0$ strongly in $L^p$ (consider a variant of $\frac{sin(nx)}{n}$), then the left hand side of the inequality is one while the right hand side tends to one from above.
Jan 17, 2013 at 19:46 comment added Deane Yang And of course just do everything in $R^1$.
Jan 17, 2013 at 18:49 comment added Mark Meckes Also, if you really want the exact operator norm, you need to say exactly which "usual" norms you're using on the Sobolev spaces, since there isn't universal agreement among various equivalent options.
Jan 17, 2013 at 17:44 comment added Deane Yang Any chance you could say a little about why you care about the operator norm? I've never seen anyone need this before. I haven't tried to work out anything at all, but one obvious thing to try is rescaling the support of a compactly supported smooth function down to a single point.
Jan 17, 2013 at 17:31 history asked Sylvester-H CC BY-SA 3.0