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Jan 17, 2013 at 2:06 history edited Allen Knutson CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 17, 2013 at 1:54 history edited Allen Knutson CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 17, 2013 at 1:46 history edited Allen Knutson CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jan 17, 2013 at 1:28 comment added Sándor Kovács @Allen: $\mathrm{depth}$ is usually considered over a local ring and in fact, the question includes that assumption. The $x$ in your example seems like a red herring. It's only a zero-divisor away from where the interesting thing is happening. In particular, I don't see why it would be a zero-divisor after localizing at the point where you are reducing the depth.
Jan 16, 2013 at 23:59 history answered Allen Knutson CC BY-SA 3.0