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Oct 19, 2009 at 21:37 comment added Alex Fink When is it actually useful, in practice, to set 0^0 not equal to 1?
Oct 19, 2009 at 7:12 history edited Simon Wadsley CC BY-SA 2.5
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Oct 19, 2009 at 7:12 comment added Qiaochu Yuan I would argue as follows. If you're a combinatorialist who accepts that 0! = 1, you accept that there is one bijection from the empty set to itself, so you accept that there is one function from the empty set to itself, so you should accept that 0^0 = 1.
Oct 19, 2009 at 7:06 history answered Simon Wadsley CC BY-SA 2.5