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Jan 2, 2013 at 1:37 comment added Donu Arapura $F$ and $G$ are algebraically equivalent by definition, but you can also use the argument you mention to show that $F\cdot D=G\cdot D$.
Jan 1, 2013 at 23:56 vote accept Matt Grimes
Jan 1, 2013 at 23:47 comment added Matt Grimes Thank you for the response. To see that $F$ and $G$ are algebraically equivalent, do we just observe that they are fibres over two points, which are topologically equivalent, and so the Chern classes of $F$ and $G$ agree?
Jan 1, 2013 at 22:38 comment added Donu Arapura The general fibre, say $G$, and $F$ are algebraically equivalent. Therefore $F\cdot D= G\cdot D$ for any divisor $D$, in particular for $D=K$. Since $G\cong \mathbb{P}^1$, we can use the adjunction formula $G\cdot K=G^2+G\cdot K=2(0)-2$.
Jan 1, 2013 at 21:27 answer added Jonathan timeline score: -1
Jan 1, 2013 at 21:19 history asked Matt Grimes CC BY-SA 3.0