Timeline for a measurable cardinal & a real-valued measurable cardinal in the same model?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 29, 2021 at 7:06 | history | edited | Joel David Hamkins |
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| Dec 27, 2012 at 17:44 | comment | added | David Reid | First, a technicality: one doesn't compare a large cardinal axiom with ZFC, one compares "the axiom plus ZFC" to ZFC. So yes, your second sentence is correct, but I am not sure what the second sentence has to do with the question. Answer #1 to this question gives the link, but this is not something that is immediately evident from the definitions of these two large cardinals. So your answer seems to be rather dogmatic. | |
| Dec 27, 2012 at 17:30 | vote | accept | David Reid | ||
| Dec 26, 2012 at 12:22 | answer | added | Joel David Hamkins | timeline score: 8 | |
| Dec 26, 2012 at 11:26 | comment | added | François G. Dorais | A measurable cardinal is also real-valued measurable by definition. The consistency strength of the existence of (real-valued) measurable cardinals is much higher than that ZFC. | |
| Dec 26, 2012 at 10:19 | comment | added | Amit Kumar Gupta | The question you're asking is equivalent to asking whether ZFC is inconsistent. | |
| Dec 26, 2012 at 9:30 | history | asked | David Reid | CC BY-SA 3.0 |