Timeline for Terminology question for real K-theory
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
2 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Dec 14, 2012 at 17:34 | comment | added | Pierre | Thanks! I'm starting to guess what happened in my referee's mind. He or she suggested the use of (E) to mean (1), which confused me; I see now that it would have confused other people. My guess at the moment is that s/he did not really bother to distinguish between (1) and (2) at all but rather, worries that a confusion with Atiyah's theory was possible. It's making more sense. I'll leave this open for a while to see if other people have something to add. | |
| Dec 14, 2012 at 15:18 | history | answered | Peter May | CC BY-SA 3.0 |