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Sep 13, 2023 at 21:18 history edited Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 13, 2023 at 21:16 comment added Michael Hardy By $(R'R)^{-1},$ do you mean any generalized inverse of the singular $d\times d$ matrix $R'R$ of rank $k<d\text{?} \qquad$
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Jul 17, 2023 at 1:49 answer added jlewk timeline score: 1
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Feb 15, 2023 at 11:46 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 15, 2023 at 7:18 answer added Daniel Zdeblick timeline score: 0
Dec 15, 2012 at 8:01 comment added Salman Thanks Mark. But can you tell a condition under which inverse of a single normal random variable becomes normal. When i plot histogram of the inverse of \mathbf{R} with k and d very large, i get a nearly normal distribution.
Dec 13, 2012 at 14:49 comment added Mark Meckes 1. Yes, of course. 2. No. Think about the case k=d: the inverse of a single normal random variable is not normal. This paper looks like a good place to find the kind of information you want: ugr.es/~ramongs/articulos%20en%20pdf/cimat1.pdf
Dec 13, 2012 at 14:46 comment added Mark Meckes I cleaned up your math by putting it into LaTeX. I think though that your pseudoinverse formula is wrong.
Dec 13, 2012 at 14:41 history edited Mark Meckes CC BY-SA 3.0
Put math into LaTeX
Dec 13, 2012 at 13:55 history asked Salman CC BY-SA 3.0