Timeline for On a inequality [closed]

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

12 events

when toggle format	what		by	license	comment
Dec 12, 2012 at 19:23	vote	accept	ljjpfx
Dec 12, 2012 at 19:23
Dec 11, 2012 at 17:07	history	closed	Yemon Choi Andrés E. Caicedo Pietro Majer Michael Renardy user9072		not a real question
Dec 11, 2012 at 14:14	answer	added	Selim		timeline score: 1
Dec 11, 2012 at 11:04	history	edited	ljjpfx	CC BY-SA 3.0	added 183 characters in body
Dec 10, 2012 at 12:18	history	edited	Charles Matthews	CC BY-SA 3.0	spelling
Dec 10, 2012 at 12:17	answer	added	Charles Matthews		timeline score: 0
Dec 10, 2012 at 11:53	comment	added	user16517		My guess is that a more meaningful inequality would have $C$ depend only on the $t_i$, but that's for you to decide.
Dec 10, 2012 at 11:52	comment	added	user16517		Suppose Delio's comments were imposed, i.e. you look only at $a_i \geq 0$ (I see you have $C>0$ now.). As it is now you've "given too much" to be a meaningful inequality, because you've given the $a_i , b_i,$ and $t_i$. This means that the right hand side is fully determined, as is everything on the left hand side except for C. Also both sides are nonnegative. Thus, the question reduces to asking if the left hand side is nonzero, whether there is a positive number $C \leq $ to the quotient of two positive numbers, which is always a positive number so yes.
Dec 10, 2012 at 11:11	comment	added	Delio Mugnolo		...or $a_i\ge 0$, of course.
Dec 10, 2012 at 11:09	comment	added	Delio Mugnolo		Your statement cannot be true. You need at very least to ask whether there is $C>0$ such that [...] and to impose that also $a_i>0$ (otherwise you could simply obtain the reverse inequality simply by flipping the sign of $a_i$).
Dec 10, 2012 at 10:49	history	edited	ljjpfx	CC BY-SA 3.0	added 45 characters in body
Dec 10, 2012 at 10:37	history	asked	ljjpfx	CC BY-SA 3.0