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Dec 8, 2023 at 11:49 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
a minor typo
Mar 19, 2013 at 10:47 comment added user27381 Ok. in this case we are able to show that [\limsup_{z\to 0^+}\frac{g(x)}{-x\ln x}=\limsup_{n\to\infty}\frac{g(M^{-n})}{M^{-n}\ln M^{-n}}] for any $M>1$ and the same is true for the lower limit
Jan 17, 2013 at 14:41 comment added user27381 Another problem which is connected with this limit - is the following equality true for $g$, which fullfills the above assumptions [ \limsup_{x\to 0^+}\frac{g(x)}{-x\ln x}= \sup_{M\in\mathbb{N}}\limsup_{n\to\infty}\frac{g(M^{-n})}{M^{-n}\ln M^{-n}}.] The crucial assuption seems to be concavity of $g$ (of course if the equality is true)
Jan 17, 2013 at 14:34 comment added user27381 Pietro, thank You very much for suggestion - it has solved many problems
Nov 29, 2012 at 9:43 history edited Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0
deleted 14 characters in body; edited body
Nov 29, 2012 at 9:32 history answered Pietro Majer CC BY-SA 3.0