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Nov 25, 2012 at 21:12 comment added arsmath No worries, Asaf.
Nov 25, 2012 at 19:39 comment added Asaf Karagila arsmath, I was just complementing. Didn't argue that you gave a "duplicated" answer.
Nov 25, 2012 at 19:30 comment added arsmath Right, but it's not equivalent to it, which if I understand the intent of the original question properly, makes it a distinct example.
Nov 25, 2012 at 18:18 comment added Goldstern In fact, the Hahn-Banach theorem is (in one version) equivalent to the existence of finitely additive probability measure on every Boolean algebra (whereas an ultrafilter or prime ideal can be seen as a finitely additive $\{0,1\}$-valued measure).
Nov 25, 2012 at 13:54 comment added Asaf Karagila The Hahn-Banach theorem is a consequence of the Boolean Prime Ideal Theorem mentioned by Stefan Geschke below, by the way.
Nov 25, 2012 at 13:15 history answered arsmath CC BY-SA 3.0