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Nov 7, 2012 at 13:44 comment added László Kozma @Hans: the opposite direction is not true, it can be that every vertex is in a cycle, but not every edge is in a cycle. Example: two cycles connected with a bridge.
Nov 5, 2012 at 19:31 comment added David Eppstein Yes, for connected graphs, every edge belonging to a cycle implies every vertex belonging to a cycle. It's also true more generally for graphs without isolated vertices regardless of connectivity. This is trivial: just find an edge adjacent to the given vertex and look for a cycle through that edge.
Oct 29, 2012 at 19:24 comment added Hans-Peter Stricker Ok, you are right. But if I restricted myself to connected graphs?
Oct 29, 2012 at 18:28 comment added David Eppstein A graph in which each edge belongs to a cycle could still have isolated vertices.
Oct 29, 2012 at 18:17 comment added Hans-Peter Stricker @David: If every edge is contained in a cyle, doesn't every vertex have to be contained in a cycle, too? And vice versa? That is, isn't the concept "self-dual"?
Jan 11, 2010 at 2:21 comment added Hans-Peter Stricker I guess it was not (if you refer to the "fruits" of "trees"). But can you - who has used the term "unreasonable" too (in another context) - appreciate the question?
Jan 11, 2010 at 1:56 comment added Qiaochu Yuan Nice pun! Was it intentional?
Jan 11, 2010 at 0:52 comment added Hans-Peter Stricker If this graph property was fruitless: How could this be explained, compared to the "unreasonable" fruitfulness of trees?
Jan 11, 2010 at 0:48 comment added Hans-Peter Stricker Could this mean that this is an unfruitful concept (since if it were fruitful it would have a name X, e.g. to be able to formulate statements like "all graphs that are X are Y" or vice versa?) The other way round: Do you know an interesting theorem which implies graphs with the above mentioned property?
Jan 11, 2010 at 0:38 history answered David Eppstein CC BY-SA 2.5