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Sep 14, 2023 at 1:01 history edited Chris Gerig CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 12, 2016 at 13:35 history edited Chris Gerig CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 15, 2012 at 20:56 vote accept Chris Gerig
Nov 15, 2012 at 20:55 history edited Chris Gerig CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 15, 2012 at 12:52 comment added HJRW @Chris: no it doesn't. begthequestion.info
Nov 15, 2012 at 9:25 comment added Jonny Evans I think you should definitely edit it to say 4-manifolds: Donaldson never made the conjecture for 2n-manifolds, which is wrong (e.g. there exist diffeomorphic, non-symplectomorphic six manifolds which give eight manifolds which are distinguished by Gromov-Witten invariants). This is because it's much easier for high-dimensional manifolds to be diffeomorphic than for four-manifolds.
Nov 15, 2012 at 7:04 answer added Jonny Evans timeline score: 14
Nov 15, 2012 at 6:19 answer added YangMills timeline score: 7
Nov 15, 2012 at 1:42 comment added Chris Gerig But my typo then begs the question, why just 4-manifolds and not $2n$-manifolds?
Nov 15, 2012 at 0:42 comment added Chris Gerig Oops. It's because I forgot to write "$4-$manifolds" :-)
Nov 15, 2012 at 0:15 history edited ARupinski CC BY-SA 3.0
Added missing $'s for TeX
Nov 14, 2012 at 22:37 comment added Qfwfq And... why is it called "four-six"? (ok, if $X_1$, $X_2$ are symplectic $4$-folds, then $X_i\times S^2$ is a $6$-fold, but the theorem as in the question doesn't seem to impose any dimension restriction on $X_i$)
Nov 14, 2012 at 21:22 history asked Chris Gerig CC BY-SA 3.0