Timeline for Does Cantor-Bernstein hold for classes?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
14 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| S Aug 28, 2023 at 9:27 | history | suggested | C7X | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
MathJaxify
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| Aug 28, 2023 at 8:36 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Aug 28, 2023 at 9:27 | |||||
| Sep 6, 2010 at 20:30 | answer | added | Joel David Hamkins | timeline score: 27 | |
| Sep 6, 2010 at 17:28 | history | edited | Ben Webster♦ | CC BY-SA 2.5 |
Minor grammar and structure changes
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| Sep 3, 2010 at 22:21 | answer | added | Martin Brandenburg | timeline score: 4 | |
| Nov 19, 2009 at 20:11 | history | edited | Ilya Nikokoshev |
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| Oct 19, 2009 at 10:56 | vote | accept | Philipp Lampe | ||
| Oct 19, 2009 at 2:20 | comment | added | Andrew Critch | Yes, it makes sense (see my answer for elaboration). | |
| Oct 19, 2009 at 2:19 | answer | added | Andrew Critch | timeline score: 5 | |
| Oct 19, 2009 at 2:14 | history | edited | Eric Wofsey |
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| Oct 19, 2009 at 2:02 | comment | added | John Goodrick | I think it does make sense. A "bijection" between classes A and B should just be a subclass of A x B (i.e. a collection defined by some formula in the language of set theory) which is a one-to-one correspondence; similarly for "class injections." | |
| Oct 19, 2009 at 1:17 | answer | added | Eric Wofsey | timeline score: 9 | |
| Oct 19, 2009 at 1:12 | comment | added | Philipp Lampe | I'm not sure whether the question makes sense. | |
| Oct 19, 2009 at 1:09 | history | asked | Philipp Lampe | CC BY-SA 2.5 |