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Nov 12, 2012 at 18:57 comment added Fabio Lucchini Yes. Indeed it's suffice to show that the image of a (which is a monomorphism) is a kernel. This is true in group category because a is the composition of a kernel with a cokernel. So, in general, the question can be stated as follows: ker(h′) coker(k) as a normal image?
Nov 12, 2012 at 18:52 history edited Fabio Lucchini CC BY-SA 3.0
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Nov 12, 2012 at 18:30 comment added Chris Heunen For abelian categories, this is known, right? (See e.g. 2.67 in Freyd's book "Abelian categories".) Are you asking if it still holds without assuming that every monomorphism is a kernel?
Nov 12, 2012 at 15:23 comment added Fabio Lucchini Yes, because $\text{coker}(k)$ has domain $G$.
Nov 12, 2012 at 14:42 comment added Mikael Vejdemo-Johansson Does $a=h\text{coker}(k)$ even exist? It seems to me that $\text{coker}(k)$ should be a subobject of $G$, while $h$ takes input from $H$.
Nov 12, 2012 at 14:05 history asked Fabio Lucchini CC BY-SA 3.0