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Aug 8, 2023 at 0:21 history edited KConrad CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 6, 2015 at 20:28 comment added Sylvain JULIEN @Will Sawin: do you mean a representation of $\mathbb{Z}$ or $\mathbb{Z}_{p}$ (or even $\hat{\mathbb{Z}}$)? My not-that-smartphone displays $\mathbb{Z}$ or $\mathbb{Z}$, which just can't be what you mean.
Nov 8, 2012 at 1:53 comment added Will Sawin This "local representation" is not meant to imply anything $p$-adic. All I'm doing is using the fact that there is a well-defined up to conjugacy action of $Frob_p$, and viewing this action as a representation of $\mathbb Z$ or $\hat{\mathbb Z}$. The first half of the sentence was certainly known to him, as the definition doesn't make sense without it, and the second half is a very natural thing to do when you have the first.
Nov 8, 2012 at 0:55 comment added Filippo Alberto Edoardo @Will: Nice answer. Do you think that your first point about local representations is historically coherent? I do not know the details, but Wikipedia says Artin introduced his function in 1923/4. By that time, was global CFT already thought idelically? Without that, or at least without a compatibility between local and global reciprocity laws, would you find it natural to "split a global representations into local ones" as it became customary later on?
Nov 7, 2012 at 23:47 comment added David Corwin +1 for the last paragraph
Nov 7, 2012 at 23:24 history answered Will Sawin CC BY-SA 3.0