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Nov 7, 2012 at 21:09 comment added Mike Shulman Yes, for a normal lax functor it may work.
Nov 6, 2012 at 16:17 comment added Buschi Sergio For a pseudofunctor this normalization is right (by the a well know coherence theorem), I used this in a my old answere to a your question abot Gray tensor product (i'm still studing about..). But I think that condiction is right also for lax functors pseudo on unity $\phi_X: 1_{F(AX)}\cong F(1_X)$.
Nov 6, 2012 at 16:12 comment added Buschi Sergio THis is no possible, consider $\phi_X^{-1}\ast F(\alpha): F(f) \to F(1_X)\to 1_{F(X)}$, in the last Edit on my inital question I admit that the "Lax" condiction is too strong, then I limitate the conjecture on pseudo-functors (its enought pseudo only about unity condiction). LEt me know if languaage is not understable.
Nov 6, 2012 at 16:00 history answered Mike Shulman CC BY-SA 3.0