Timeline for Why does a homologically trivial cycle have trivial projections?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nov 5, 2012 at 21:07 | comment | added | jmc | $\pi_{i}$ is the projection onto the $i$-th factor. I.e., one of the factors $X$. | |
| Nov 5, 2012 at 21:06 | vote | accept | jmc | ||
| Nov 5, 2012 at 12:56 | comment | added | Angelo | What is $\pi_i$? | |
| Nov 5, 2012 at 11:43 | comment | added | jmc | Actually, I do not fully understand whay is going on from "These imply that ..." (two lines below eq. 5.1.2 on p. 76 of [Zhang]). It seems pretty dense to me. But I think the above question is the most important key to understand the proof of [Zhang, Lemma 5.1.2]. | |
| Nov 5, 2012 at 11:33 | history | edited | jmc | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
clarified ambiguitiy
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| Nov 5, 2012 at 11:20 | answer | added | Angelo | timeline score: 4 | |
| Nov 5, 2012 at 11:07 | history | asked | jmc | CC BY-SA 3.0 |