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Nov 2, 2012 at 23:59 comment added fedja Consider $g(bx)/g(b)$ and let $b\to 0+$. Actually, you do not need infinity here: a sufficiently long interval (double exponential in $1/\delta$) will suffice, so taking the limit is not necessary: just take $b$ really small. You didn't really do badly at all. I just was curious why a mathematical proof might suddenly become an urgent matter. :).
Nov 2, 2012 at 21:36 comment added Andrey Thank you, sir. I did badly, i understand... The proof is nice, but could you please explain how you extend it from (0, 1) to $(0, \infty)$
Nov 2, 2012 at 19:29 comment added William Stein Thanks! Andrey is new here, and I suggested he post his question -- he doesn't know the etiquette yet.
Nov 2, 2012 at 19:08 vote accept Andrey
Nov 2, 2012 at 19:08 vote accept Andrey
Nov 2, 2012 at 19:08
Nov 2, 2012 at 2:27 history answered fedja CC BY-SA 3.0