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Oct 22, 2012 at 21:19 comment added Fernando Muro There's however a precise theorem which might be enough for you. It asserts in a precise way what you mean and only requires the triangulated category to be the base of a triangulated derivator. It's in one of the appendices of the following paper by Keller-Nicolás arxiv.org/abs/1009.5904
Oct 22, 2012 at 21:15 comment added Fernando Muro First of all, let me remark that, strictly speaking, the statement is ambiguous since there is no homotopy (co)limit functor in triangulated category. The problem is that there's no way to get canonical induced morphisms. You should perhapes make your question precise. Anyway, I understand what you mean, and I bet you won't find such statements explicitly. They can be proved with model categories techniques, but nobody has cared to do it explicitly since once you know the language the proof is trivial.
Oct 22, 2012 at 19:48 history asked George C. Modoi CC BY-SA 3.0