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Oct 21, 2012 at 18:42 vote accept Garabed Gulbenkian
Oct 21, 2012 at 18:41 vote accept Garabed Gulbenkian
Oct 21, 2012 at 18:42
Oct 21, 2012 at 14:40 comment added Dave Marker The ultraproduct of non-abelian simple groups need not be simple. This is discussed in an earlier mathoveflow question: mathoverflow.net/questions/32908/…
Oct 21, 2012 at 0:26 comment added Andreas Blass I was taking "simple" to include "non-abelian", as group-theorists sometimes do, but as I probably shouldn't.
Oct 20, 2012 at 23:33 comment added Noah Schweber Specifically, it is infinite, so has proper non-trivial subgroups, and is abelian, so every subgroup is normal; but since each finite cyclic group of prime order is simple, if there were a first-order characterization of simplicity, the ultraproduct would have to also be simple, so we're done. (Or have I made a mistake somewhere?)
Oct 20, 2012 at 22:56 comment added Noah Schweber In fact, isn't the ultraproduct of the finite cyclic groups of prime order not simple?
Oct 20, 2012 at 22:55 comment added Noah Schweber The question of whether "sporadic" is first-order seems ill-formed to me, since I'm not sure there's a definition of sporadic in the first place, but towards showing the non-first-orderness of simplicity: is the ultraproduct of a sequence of increasingly large simple groups, by a non-principal ultrafilter, known to be simple? I would guess that it would generally not be simple, but I can't prove that.
Oct 20, 2012 at 20:59 history answered Andreas Blass CC BY-SA 3.0