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Oct 15, 2012 at 12:13 vote accept Colin McLarty
Oct 15, 2012 at 8:02 history edited Asaf Karagila
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Oct 15, 2012 at 8:00 answer added Asaf Karagila timeline score: 8
Oct 15, 2012 at 7:47 comment added Asaf Karagila Michael, no. It should be $\aleph_1$. If $\aleph_1$ is singular then it is the countable union of countable ordinals; but $\aleph_2$ (even if singular) can never be the countable union of countable ordinals.
Oct 15, 2012 at 7:21 comment added Michael Greinecker I think that should be $\aleph_0$ in the first sentence.
Oct 15, 2012 at 4:45 history asked Colin McLarty CC BY-SA 3.0