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Nov 26, 2013 at 7:34 history edited Ben McKay CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 15, 2012 at 1:53 comment added Deane Yang If you assume the manifold is closed, not only do you have bounds on everything as Robert says, you have easier proofs. In particular, you can refer back to Hamilton's original papers instead of trying to read Shi's paper, which addresses the difficulties that arise when working with a noncompact complete Riemannian manifold
Oct 14, 2012 at 14:58 comment added Robert Haslhofer sure, on a closed manifold with smooth metric you have bounds for everything.
Oct 14, 2012 at 11:45 comment added malik This variant of Shi's estimates is indeed very interesting - thank you for the hint. But if I had read this result first, my question would have been the same: What do I need for bounded derivatives of the initial curvature? According to the answers above I now think a closed manifold with smooth metric will do.
Oct 14, 2012 at 4:45 comment added Deane Yang Robert, thanks for the clarification.
Oct 14, 2012 at 2:28 comment added Robert Haslhofer I have the feeling this needs some more clarification: In Shi's estimate $|D^k Rm|<C/t^{k/2}$ the bound blows up as $t$ goes to zero. If one however assumes in addition bounds for the derivatives of the initial curvature, then one can in fact prove a uniform estimate $|D^k Rm|<C$ that doesn't deteriorate at $t$ goes to zero (see also my comment above).
Oct 13, 2012 at 15:39 comment added Deane Yang One does usually assume that the metric $g(0)$ is smooth. In that case, the $k$-th order covariant derivative of curvature is automatically locally continuous and therefore bounded, so having it bounded uniformly on the whole manifold is an extra assumption. The point about Shi's theorem is that even if you don't assume a uniform bound but do assume a uniform bound on the curvature itself, then all the higher order covariant derivatives of curvature become uniformly bounded in positive time.
Oct 13, 2012 at 15:36 history edited Deane Yang CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 13, 2012 at 12:22 comment added malik First of all thank you for the answers. I was aware of the equivalent formulation to my second question and just wanted to give my motivation for it. But now I seem to misunderstand some (presumably trivial) point here. Aren't these functions $g_{ij}$ always smooth? I thought, this was implied by the definition of a riemannian metric.
Oct 12, 2012 at 21:07 vote accept malik
Oct 12, 2012 at 20:10 history edited Deane Yang CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 12, 2012 at 20:09 comment added Deane Yang Oy. Actually, I meant $C^{k+2}$. Many thanks for asking.
Oct 12, 2012 at 19:17 comment added Glen Wheeler Did you perhaps mean $C^{k+1}$ for $g_{ij}$ at the end there?
Oct 12, 2012 at 18:10 history answered Deane Yang CC BY-SA 3.0