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Timeline for product spaces of rationals

Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0

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Oct 5, 2012 at 13:52 comment added Gerald Edgar OK, I am happy with this version.
Oct 5, 2012 at 1:06 comment added Todd Trimble Your suggestion also seems reasonable. :-)
Oct 5, 2012 at 1:05 comment added Todd Trimble Thanks Gerald. I think it's fixed now, but what I wrote is inelegant. If I had to do it again, I'd instead use the countable dense linear order $Q$ of quadratic surds between 0 and 1, whose continued fractions are eventually periodic, and interleave those. That seems to me to be a more elegant, less hack-y solution.
Oct 5, 2012 at 0:47 comment added Gerald Edgar Maybe you can interleave using decimals for something like $\{x+\sqrt{2} : x \in \mathbb Q\}$.
Oct 4, 2012 at 21:02 history edited Todd Trimble CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 4, 2012 at 19:57 comment added Todd Trimble Bah. Yes. I can't delete my answer though unless nemisiso unaccepts it. Thanks for pointing out the problem, Gerald. Maybe there's some simpleminded fix, but I'm otherwise occupied now.
Oct 4, 2012 at 19:31 comment added Gerald Edgar "Forbidding tails of zeros" ... a slight problem. No pair of numbers interleaves to u = 0.40404040404040... despite its being eventually periodic and not having a tail of zeros.
Oct 4, 2012 at 16:08 comment added Sidney Raffer @ Emil: Whoops!
Oct 4, 2012 at 16:01 comment added Emil Jeřábek @SJR: Sets of the form $\{a\}\times(b,c)$ are open in the lexicographic order topology, but not in the product topology.
Oct 4, 2012 at 15:46 comment added Sidney Raffer Isn't the product topology on QxQ the same as the order topology on QxQ determined by the lexicographic order? This, together with back-and-forth, would do the trick.
Oct 4, 2012 at 15:33 comment added Todd Trimble I have substantially edited my answer. Apologies again. If there is still an error, then please (nemesiso) unaccept this answer and I will delete it. I really just wanted something semi-constructive.
Oct 4, 2012 at 15:31 history edited Todd Trimble CC BY-SA 3.0
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Oct 4, 2012 at 15:13 comment added Todd Trimble Sorry! You are right. I will edit and try to fix this thing.
Oct 4, 2012 at 14:51 comment added Gerald Edgar Am I confused? $f : \mathbb{Q} \times \mathbb{Q} \to \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})$ sending $(r,s)$ to $r+s\sqrt{2}$ is a homeomorphism? Surely you can have $r_n \to \infty$ and $s_n \to -\infty$ in such a way that $r_n+s_n\sqrt{2} \to 0$?
Oct 4, 2012 at 14:22 vote accept Marcus
Oct 4, 2012 at 14:20 history answered Todd Trimble CC BY-SA 3.0