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Nov 26, 2021 at 17:35 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
http -> https (the question was bumped anyway)
Jul 7, 2012 at 22:46 answer added HenrikRüping timeline score: 3
Jul 7, 2012 at 18:30 answer added Mirco A. Mannucci timeline score: 4
May 31, 2010 at 8:57 answer added KP Hart timeline score: 11
Jan 6, 2010 at 16:56 vote accept Joel David Hamkins
Jan 6, 2010 at 14:31 comment added Joel David Hamkins That is true, but the relevent comparison would seem to be R* versus a transfinite sequence of pseudo metrics (or a system of entourages), no?
Jan 6, 2010 at 10:17 comment added Harry Gindi True, but we understand the standard reals much better than the nonstandard reals.
Jan 6, 2010 at 5:22 comment added Joel David Hamkins It seems that Dorais's answer bears out your expectation! So thanks very much. Although I suppose "nice" is relative; after all, the R* metric captures in one distance function the same information as uncountably many pseudo-metrics...
Jan 6, 2010 at 4:16 comment added Harry Gindi No, I was just saying that *R-metrizability can be reduced to a much nicer condition in terms of standard analysis by using uniform spaces.
Jan 6, 2010 at 4:05 answer added François G. Dorais timeline score: 30
Jan 6, 2010 at 3:25 history edited Mariano Suárez-Álvarez CC BY-SA 2.5
Fix typo in the title
Jan 6, 2010 at 3:17 comment added Joel David Hamkins Well, every nonstandard metric space is uniform for the same reason that every metric space is uniform. But are you proposing it as an equivalence?
Jan 6, 2010 at 2:32 comment added Harry Gindi I think what you're talking about can be expressed more naturally in terms of non-metrizable uniform spaces.
Jan 6, 2010 at 2:19 history asked Joel David Hamkins CC BY-SA 2.5