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Jan 6, 2010 at 12:41 comment added Anweshi I also ask about Hanche-Olsen's objection.
Jan 5, 2010 at 19:38 vote accept Johan
Jan 5, 2010 at 19:38 comment added Johan Yeah, that seems to work completely.
Jan 5, 2010 at 19:37 comment added Harald Hanche-Olsen How do you know that the singularities in the second sum don't cancel each other out?
Jan 5, 2010 at 19:27 comment added Anweshi Your clarification(both here and in my deleted answer) had been most helpful. Thanks.
Jan 5, 2010 at 19:23 comment added David E Speyer Because its derivative is not bounded near $1$.
Jan 5, 2010 at 19:20 comment added Anweshi $f(1) = \zeta(2)$. Why are you saying $f$ is not analytic near $1$?
Jan 5, 2010 at 19:10 history answered David E Speyer CC BY-SA 2.5