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Sep 25, 2012 at 20:25 vote accept roork
Sep 25, 2012 at 11:14 answer added Vincent Beffara timeline score: 6
Sep 25, 2012 at 0:14 answer added Adrien Hardy timeline score: 2
Sep 25, 2012 at 0:13 comment added Mark Meckes The first expectation makes perfect sense; the underlying probability space is the product of countably many copies of $[0,1]^k$. Unless I'm overlooking something all you need here is the dominated convergence theorem.
Sep 24, 2012 at 23:11 history asked roork CC BY-SA 3.0